Throwaway for protection. I saw a CT scan of abdomen pelvis that looked like patient had drank po contrast but they had not. On review this had been there for 2-5 years and even seen on a kub. The read has always been along the lines of residual contrast from previous exam, but that doesn't seem to make sense. They have not had any PO contrast in the past year or so. Any thoughts?
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source https://www.reddit.com/r/Radiology/comments/km4hml/ct_scan_looks_like_patient_had_po_contrast_but/
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